Week 2 - Case File - Cardiology, Case Study - Anterior ST Elevation Myocardial Infarction (STEMI)
Discipline: Nursing
Type of Paper: Question-Answer
Academic Level: Undergrad. (yrs 3-4)
Paper Format: APA
Question
A 62-year-old man arrives to the emergency department complaining of acute, severe precordial chest pain radiating to his arm and neck. He reports feeling like “an elephant is standing on my chest” and states that his symptoms are accompanied by nausea. His chest pain began approximately 30 minutes ago while he was watching television and it has not completely resolved since onset. His medical history includes hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and a 50-pack/year history of cigarette smoking.
On examination the patient is diaphoretic and in moderate distress with the following vital signs: blood pressure 156/97 mmHg, pulse 113 bpm, respiratory rate 24 breaths/min, and oxygen saturation 98% on room air. He is tachycardic with a normal S1 and S2 and without murmurs, rubs, or gallops. His jugular venous pressure is not elevated; he has a left carotid bruit. Chest auscultation reveals faint crackles at the left base but is otherwise clear. His abdomen is protuberant but soft and without masses. His lower extremities are without edema. He has 2+ pulses in his upper and lower extremities. An electrocardiogram (ECG) is performed and shown (Figure 1-1). Stat labs are drawn and the nurse has just sent them to the laboratory.
Questions
What is the most important feature of his presenting history?
What is the most important initial therapeutic maneuver?
Answer to Case 1: Anterior ST Elevation Myocardial Infarction (STEMI)
Summary: This is a 62-year-old man who presents with a chest pain story that is classic for acute myocardial ischemia, including precordial discomfort radiating to the arm and neck. He has risk factors for coronary artery disease, including elevated cholesterol, high blood pressure, and an extensive smoking history. He has a carotid bruit on exam that suggests significant underlying atherosclerosis. An acute surge of catecholamines is responsible for the patient’s tachycardia, elevated blood pressure, and diaphoresis. His ECG is diagnostic.
Most likely diagnosis: Anterior ST segment elevation myocardial infarction.
Most important feature of presenting history: The time since symptom onset.
Most important initial therapeutic maneuver: Prompt coronary revascularization.
Analysis
Objectives
Instant recognition of patients presenting with STEMI.
Understanding the importance of immediate reperfusion therapy for patients with STEMI.
Awareness of other diagnoses that should be considered in this patient group.
Knowledge of the potential electrical and mechanical complications of STEMI.
Knowledge of the evidence-based therapies that should be employed on discharge for this patient group.
Considerations
ST elevation myocardial infarction is a true medical emergency that requires immediate recognition and prompt treatment. Time is the most important factor to consider at presentation because survival of myocardial tissue (as well as the patient) depends on prompt and early coronary revascularization. “Time is muscle” is a commonly used expression in emergency departments and catheterization laboratories around the world for good reason; the faster we recognize and treat STEMI, the more lives we save.
The first priority in this patient is to establish the diagnosis so that definitive therapy can be rendered. His ECG and clinical scenario is classic for STEMI; however, it is important to consider other potential causes of ST segment elevation and chest pain such as acute aortic dissection and pericarditis as these conditions will certainly not improve and in fact may be exacerbated by the usual treatment for STEMI [eg, anticoagulation, percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI), or thrombolysis]. These diagnoses can often be excluded by clinical history alone, but if aortic dissection is strongly suspected, it may be necessary to arrange for a stat contrast-enhanced CT of the chest or transesophageal echocardiogram prior to definitive therapy. It is also important to carefully document this patient’s presenting physical exam so that potential complications of myocardial infarction can be readily identified should he decompensate during his hospitalization. Once the diagnosis of STEMI is secure, the patient should receive aspirin 325 mg, an ADP inhibitor, and parenteral anticoagulation while in the emergency department a decision is made regarding reperfusion strategies.
Clinical Pearls
ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) is due to complete occlusion of a coronary artery and is characterized by ST elevation of 1 mm or greater in two or more contiguous leads (or a new LBBB) in the setting of positive biomarkers.
The location of ST elevation can help delineate the coronary anatomy that is most likely to be affected (see Table 1-1).
The elderly, females, or patients with diabetes may present with atypical or vague symptoms of chest discomfort; one must maintain a high index of suspicion in these patient populations.
Reperfusion therapy is of the essence and should be initiated as soon as possible. Ideal “door-to-balloon” time is < 90 minutes, or fibrinolytics should be administered within 30 minutes of presentation if PCI is not available in a timely fashion.
Postinfarct care includes diligent monitoring for potential complications of STEMI, including electrical and mechanical complications. Any sudden deterioration in clinical status should be evaluated with a stat ECG and echocardiogram.
After STEMI, virtually all patients should receive an evidence-based cardioprotective medical regimen consisting of aspirin, ADP inhibitor, high-dose statin, BB, and ACEI.
Risk factors, including the presence of hypertension, diabetes, or hyperlipidemia, should be aggressively modified. Smoking cessation is essential.
Reference
[PubMed: 26498666]
Smith
SC, Benjamin
EJ, Bonow
RO
et al.. AHA/ACCF Secondary prevention and risk reduction therapy
for patients with coronary and other atherosclerotic vascular disease:
2011 update. J Am Coll Cardiol 2011;5823:2432–2446.
[PubMed: 22055990]
Question 1 of 4
A 68-year-old man with a medical history of hypertension and diabetes presents to the emergency department with 40 minutes of chest burning that began while mowing his lawn. His discomfort is precordial and does not radiate. He appears to be in moderate distress. Pertinent findings on exam include blood pressure of 153/86, heart rate of 112 bpm, and oxygen saturation of 98%. Jugular venous distension (JVD) of 9 cm is present. Lungs have bibasilar rales, and cardiac exam reveals a regular tachycardia, a S3 gallop, and a soft systolic murmur at the right upper sternal border. He is administered 325 mg aspirin and oxygen by nasal cannula. A sublingual nitroglycerin is also given which does not seem to affect his burning sensation. An ECG is immediately performed as shown in Figure 1-4. What is the next best step?
Figure 1-4.
ECG for question 1.1.
Obtain stat cardiac biomarkers
Administer a “GI cocktail” consisting of an antacid and viscous lidocaine
Initiate reperfusion therapy
Obtain an echocardiogram
Administer IV metoprolol
You will be able to view all answers at the end of your quiz.
The correct answer is C. You answered C.
C. This diabetic patient is presenting with atypical chest pain and evidence of a posterior circulation infarct on ECG. In addition to aspirin, the patient should receive an ADP inhibitor and an intravenous anticoagulant. However, “time is myocardium,” and thus the most important next step is to reperfuse the myocardium by either emergently activating the cardiac catheterization laboratory for PCI or by administering a thrombolytic agent. While beta-blockers should certainly be prescribed prior to discharge in ACS patients, they should be used judiciously within the first 24 hours of presentation. In this patient with signs of early heart failure including elevated JVD, an S3 gallop, tachycardia, and rales, beta-blockers should be avoided so as not to precipitate acute decompensated heart failure. An echocardiogram is unnecessary as the diagnosis is provided by the ECG and would only delay the patient from receiving definitive therapy. Cardiac biomarkers are likely to be normal given he presented soon after symptoms began and would not affect your treatment plan at this point. It is important to remember that the elderly, females, and diabetics may present with atypical symptoms such as a burning pain that may be confused with dyspepsia. One must maintain a high index of suspicion for ACS in these patient populations.
Question 2 of 4
A 74-year-old woman with no previous medical history is recovering in the intensive care unit after presenting with STEMI and undergoing uneventful PCI 2 days ago. During morning rounds, the patient develops acute shortness of breath. Prior to this new development, she had been slowly improving. The patient’s blood pressure is 84/49 mmHg with a heart rate of 62 bpm and oxygen saturation of 92%. She is in acute distress. JVD is at 10 cm. Auscultation of the lungs reveals diffuse rales of bilateral lung fields. Cardiac exam shows regular rate and rhythm with a soft pansystolic murmur at the apex. Extremities are cool and clammy. The patient’s pulmonary artery (PA) tracing shows elevated PA pressures with a PCWP of 22 and prominent V waves. ECG shows Q waves in leads II, III, and aVF and nonspecific T wave changes. A stat bedside echocardiogram confirms the diagnosis. What is the next best step?
Administration of IV fluids
Administration of vasodilator therapy
Emergent pericardiocentesis
Emergent catheterization laboratory activation
Insertion of an intraortic balloon pump
You will be able to view all answers at the end of your quiz.
The correct answer is E. You answered E.
E. The patient’s clinical presentation is most consistent with cardiogenic shock from acute papillary muscle rupture. She has risk factors for papillary muscle rupture, including no prior history of myocardial infarction as well as an inferior STEMI as demonstrated by Q waves on ECG. It is important to note that the intensity of the murmur does not predict the severity of mitral regurgitation. The patient is in need of emergent surgical repair; however, she must first be stabilized. Given that she is hypotensive and would not tolerate afterload reduction with vasodilators, an intraaortic balloon pump should be inserted promptly. Occasionally, vasodilator therapy can be initiated after IABP insertion with hemodynamic improvement. It is also important to note that this patient’s heart rate is abnormally low in this clinical setting. She has what is termed “chronotropic incompetence,” which can be seen in patients with an inferior STEMI since the RCA supplies the sinus node. It is likely that she would need a temporary transvenous pacemaker, in addition to the IABP, to increase cardiac output. Although the patient is hypotensive, IV fluids would not be helpful as she is not hypovolemic. Her presentation is not consistent with tamponade, which might occur with free wall rupture, and thus a pericardiocentesis is not indicated. The catheterization lab should not be activated as the ECG does not show evidence of a new infarct.
Question 3 of 4
A 57-year-old woman with a medical history of uncontrolled diabetes, hyperlipidemia, and smoking is being seen at 2-month follow-up after recent hospitalization for anterior STEMI. She reports feeling well and is back to her normal routine without symptoms. Physical exam reveals a blood pressure of 137/75 mmHg and a heart rate of 73 bpm. The remainder of her exam is unremarkable. Blood work shows total cholesterol of 273 mg/dL, LDL 162 mg/dL, HDL 39 mg/dL, and triglycerides of 358 mg/dL. Her HgA1c is 9.8%. Echocardiogram reveals an EF of 35%. Her medications include aspirin 81 mg daily, clopidogrel 75 mg daily, carvedilol 6.25 mg twice daily, lisinopril 20 mg daily, metformin 500 mg twice daily, and pravastatin 40 mg daily.
Which of the following interventions would be the most impactful with regard to her long-term cardiovascular morbidity and mortality?
Smoking cessation
High-dose atorvastatin for optimal lipid control
Implantation of an ICD
Optimizing diabetic medical regimen for improved glycemic control
Titrating carvedilol and lisinopril higher as tolerated
You will be able to view all answers at the end of your quiz.
The correct answer is A. You answered A.
A. While all of the answer choices are important interventions that should be pursued for this patient, the most impactful intervention is smoking cessation. Continuing to smoke after a myocardial infarction doubles the rate of reinfarction and death; therefore, aggressive efforts are needed to help the patient stop smoking, including use of nicotine replacements as well as medicinal therapy with bupropion or varenicline. Referral to a smoking cessation program is also appropriate. If the patient lives with another smoker, it is important to try and engage the other party to stop smoking as well since it is extremely difficult for people to cease smoking when others around them continue to smoke.
Question 4 of 4
A 39-year-old man with a medical history of hypertension and smoking presents to the emergency department with worsening chest pain. He reports that he suddenly developed the discomfort after a coughing spell this morning. It has worsened over the past 4 hours so that he now presents to the emergency room. He says it is like a “knife going through my chest to my spine.” There are no exacerbating or alleviating factors that he can identify. Physical exam reveals a blood pressure of 189/92, heart rate of 96 bpm, and oxygen saturation of 96%. He is in moderate discomfort. There is no significant JVD. His lungs are clear, and cardiac exam reveals regular rate and rhythm with a very soft diastolic murmur at the right upper sternal border. He has a trace radial pulse on his left side; the other extremities have 2+ pulses. A basic metabolic profile is remarkable for a creatinine of 1.7. His CK-MB is 22 (units here) and his TnT is 0.8 (units here). An ECG shows nonspecific ST-T changes in leads II, III, and aVF. A chest x-ray is unremarkable. What is the next best step?
Gated CT of the chest with contrast
Transesophageal echocardiogram
Administration of aspirin, clopidogrel, and IV heparin and trend cardiac markers with serial ECGs
Administration of NSAIDs and colchicine
Check a D-dimer
You will be able to view all answers at the end of your quiz.
The correct answer is B. You answered B.
B. This patient is likely experiencing an acute aortic dissection and needs urgent, unequivocal diagnosis so that definitive surgical therapy can be administered. He has a history of hypertension, which is a risk factor for aortic dissection. His exam suggests that he may have compromised blood flow to his left upper extremity as evidenced by a diminished left radial pulse. In addition, a diastolic murmur is apparent, which can be seen in aortic dissections complicated by aortic insufficiency. It appears that there is involvement of the ostium of the right coronary artery given his elevated cardiac biomarkers and ECG changes. However, this is not due to thrombus, and anticoagulants and antiplatelets in this setting are not indicated. The patient’s creatinine is elevated, perhaps because of involvement of a renal artery by a dissection flap, and thus a CT scan with contrast should be avoided if possible. The patient’s presentation is not consistent with pericarditis, and thus NSAIDs and colchicine should not be administered. A d-dimer is frequently markedly elevated in patients with aortic dissection; however, the test is not specific and thus does not render a definitive diagnosis and thus would not be helpful in this setting. A negative d-dimer might be helpful in ruling out aortic dissection in a patient with a low pretest probability of this diagnosis. It is important to note that if one suspects a dissection, a definitive imaging test must be ordered given the potentially catastrophic outcome of missing this diagnosis. An unremarkable chest x-ray with a normal mediastinum and equal blood pressures in each arm is not sufficient to exclude a dissection.